Case 1

Zaid questions that, Almighty Allah has permitted a man to marry two, three or four wives, so why have women not been permitted to marry two, three or four (men)? What is the Shariah ruling concerning a person who asks such a question?

The Ruling

Almighty Allah says,

إِنَّ ٱللَّهَ لَا يَأْمُرُ بِٱلْفَحْشَآءِ

‘Undoubtedly, Allah does not command indecency (immodesty)’

[Surah Al A’raf (7), Verse 28]

For two men to be collectively with one woman is explicit immodesty. Leave alone humans, even the worst amongst the animals i.e. the swine does not tolerate this.

The wisdom behind the forbiddance of adultery is to preserve one’s lineage, or else one will not know whom the child belongs to (i.e. who the father is). If it were permissible for two men to be in one woman’s Nikah (at the same time), then the same harm and blemish which is found in adultery will be found here.

(In this case) it will not be confirmed as to whom of the two, is the father of the child. (i.e. the paternity of the child will be disputed). واللہ تعالیٰ اعلم [And Allah Almighty Knows Best]

To ask such a question is to be clearly astray. If Zaid is not an absolute ignorant and disrespectable person, then he is an irreligious person; and if he is not an irreligious person, then he is an absolutely ignorant, and dis-respectable person. واللہ تعالیٰ اعلم

References

1. Fatawa Africa, case 1, Imam Ahmad Rida Khan Qadri RadiyAllahu Anhu

[Translation]

Mufti Afthab Cassim Qadri Ridawi Noori